Originally Posted by RickHolland
You didn't knew that Jews have been part of South Africa since the very beginning?
There were jews in the very beginning of Norman England, Roman France, Spain and Portugal (etc). Does that therefore make the populations of England, France, Spain and Portugal ispo facto mischlinge juden? Oh and lets not forget the proportions were probably similar given that for example that the earliest reports we have (mentioned in Roth's 'History of the Jews in England' and also briefly in Hyamson's 'History of the Sephardim in England' for example) mention quite a few jews coming along with William the Bastard (later known as 'the Conquerer). Therefore may we conclude that the English are mischlinge, because of the presumption, without evidence (and no you haven't provided any for your presumption either so I am merely showing you a like-for-like comparison), of interbreeding down through the generations and that therefore because your supposed name is English: you are yourself a mischling?
You are arguing an obvious non-sequitur you absolute twit.
Incidentally arguing Clausewitz is a jewish name is simply hilarious and shows you to be the howling buffoon that you are. Go on tell me where it is listed as such or do a little intellectial doggy-paddle and try and explain why you thought Karl von Clausewitz was Karl's actual name and didn't know about the famous German military author of that name.