Quote:
Originally Posted by Hadding
How can Weber today invoke a wholly doubtful document and, in that document, a passage that is particularly suspect? Is it because at some time between 1988 and 2009 he completely changed his mind on these points? If so, when did he ever advise us of the change, and what were the reasons for such a turn-around?
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I don't read revisionist books, except the ones whose authors are attacked and incarcerated.
Intellectuals are suspect to begin with, especially those who thrive in ZOG society.