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Old February 25th, 2010 #1
George Witzgall
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Default Just vs. Unjust Anti-semitism

An article talking about how affirmative action harms asians when it comes to college admissions bemoans:

Quote:
case after case of children of privilege ... [finding] their way into the hallowed halls of Harvard, Yale and Princeton, schools where legacy students, predominantly white and affluent, make up one out of five admissions.
To which I responded:
Quote:
white? no, jewish. if you look at white non-jews, they are under-represented at Harvard, Yale, and Princeton, while jews are vastly overrepresented.

where is the affirmative action for (non-ashkenazi) white students? they have it as hard as asians to get into these elite schools. who made it the law to group jews with whites so as to hide jewish over-representation and white under-representation?

and if you say jews (ashkenazis) are racially white, then why is it that a dna test can tell them apart to the same degree as asians and whites, or blacks and whites? how can anyone consider this to be fair?
Now clearly, taking semitics as a separate group from whites when it comes to admissions into institutes of higher learning is, by definition, anti-semitic, since it would be harmful to semitic (jewish) interests.

On the other hand, the current policy of artificially grouping them together to mask jewish over-representation and indigenous european under-representation at these elite schools has no justification and is harmful to indigenous europeans.

Therefore, changing the policy would be both just and anti-semitic. It is possible to be anti-semitic and just/moral at the same time. We should therefore make a distinction between just and unjust anti-semitism.
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Last edited by George Witzgall; February 26th, 2010 at 09:05 AM.
 
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