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Old March 14th, 2020 #1
JewExpert
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Default How could the Spanish flu have possibly been transmitted to all the countries around the world?

there were no planes back in 1918. to get to the US you'd have to travel on a ship for WEEKS. anybody on the ship with Spanish flu would have DIED in transit.

it would have been IMPOSSIBLE for this flu to have traveled to all these countries BY ACCIDENT

notice this epidemic that killed , by some estimated ONE HUNDRED MILLION PEOPLE is NOT talked about by kikes, just like the murder of tens of millions by bolsheviks.

hmm, i wonder why eh? if people talked about it too much, they'd figure things like this out. that its simply IMPOSSIBLE that this spread accidentally all over the world.
 
Old March 14th, 2020 #2
JewExpert
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also i'd add that people were NOT stupid back then, they understood quarantines perfectly fine. if a ship coming in had anyone sick from the flu they would most definitely have quarantined everyone on the ship. there' s no way anyone could have made the transit without becoming at the very least symptomatic.

but even this is completely irrelevant because the Jewish flu had an incubation period of TWO TO SEVEN DAYS FROM INFECTION.

and ships were not as fast as they are today. even a short trip of 2 to seven days would have been impossible to spread the flu, let alone the trip of several WEEKS across atlantic, or even the PACIFIC. how the fuck did AUSTRALIA get it
 
Old March 14th, 2020 #3
JewExpert
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if the stupids don't wake up to the fact the KIKES are behind this, then they are all going to DIE for their stupidity, this is humanity's LAST CHANCE to smarten the fuck up
 
Old March 14th, 2020 #4
Dawn Cannon
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Default 100 Years Ago: ‘Spanish Flu’ Epidemic Kills More Than World War 1

Take it or leave it:


[Editor’s note: It is the 100th anniversary of the outbreak of ‘Spanish Flu’ in 1918 that killed over 100 million people globally, more than had died in WWI. Much of the public knowledge of this event is plain wrong; for starters, there was no Spanish Flu in that it wasn’t any kind of influenza, this is clear from the contemporary reports of the symptoms which make it clear that this was a nasty hemorrhagic disease.

The exact origins of the ‘Spanish Flu’ are somewhat clearer – it began in the huge Army camps in the US Mid-West; furthermore, it’s origins are rather clear too – it was the result of the administration of multiple vaccines in a short space of time, turning the bodies of the young recruits into incubators for the deadly pathogen that swept the globe.

You won’t find acknowledgement of these truths in the mainstream literature, but that doesn’t mean there isn’t a large body of evidence available to prove it was not a simple influenza outbreak.

I have published below a compilation of some of the more readily accessible material on the subject. Ian]

“Funny how, in the discussion of the 1918 epidemic, no mention of a vaccine is ever made. Today, historians say that the epidemic happened because there was no vaccine.” – Hilary Butler

Vaccine not virus responsible for Spanish flu

Thursday, May 08, 2003

http://archives.tcm.ie/irishexaminer...y265526733.asp



cont.:

https://www.veteranstoday.com/2018/0...n-world-war-1/
 
Old March 14th, 2020 #5
Hugh Akston
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JewExpert View Post
How could the Spanish flu have possibly been transmitted to all the countries around the world?
Although air flight had been around since 1903, the first transatlantic flight wasn't achieved until the year 1919. But commonality of mass air travel was not necessary for the Spanish flu (so named because the first case in the West appeared in Spain) to spread in the way that it did. In fact, the circumstances were very similar to the spread of covid-19:
  • 1917 - "Spanish" flu originates in Northern China
  • 2019 - Wuhan flu originates in Southern China
  • 1917/1918 - British & French governments import 140,000 Chinese laborers to Europe to make up for manpower loss due to World War I - which then spreads to the US with returning American soldiers
  • 2019 - Europe and America "import" Chinese travelers - via commercial jet travel - into their countries - which then spreads from there

After that, both the Spanish flu and covid-19 spread rapidly.

Who's to blame?
  • China in both cases, because evil diseases lurk within that evil land
  • Assholes in Europe and America for bringing in carriers of these two diseases

Hurry up and DIE, white boy!

 
Old March 14th, 2020 #6
JewExpert
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another thing of import.

descriptions of MASS jew agitation in the year of 1918, across the globe.

In the US there were descriptions of jews on every corner, trying to incite communist, antifa style riots, in hopes of creating enough confusion to slip in and murder all the opposition in government like in russia and all other countries.

it was so noticeable and so wide spread it created MASSIVE surge in ranks of the KKK.

these marches on washington by KKK were a consequence above described activity, that began at time of spanish flu outbreak

 
Old March 14th, 2020 #7
JewExpert
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the odds of 23 members of Iran's parliament and top officials getting the Corona virus, are what??

obviously the jews spread it there.

if it came from bats, how did they obtain the virus to spread in Iran? obviously, they did not go into china, find the virus, culture it, then take it to Iran

It means, they had it in spreadable form. it means, it absolutely was a bioweapon.

and what are they odds they created this just to give you the sniffles?? it could be some form of race specific AIDS, as the virus is apparently race specific to a certain degree
 
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