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Old May 23rd, 2011 #1
Jerry Abbott
Senior Member
Join Date: Nov 2007
Posts: 874
Jerry Abbott
Default Rattling the Monkey Cage

The scientific testing of intelligence has been going on for about 100 years. For all that time, blacks have had a noticeable deficit in IQ as compared with whites. It has never mattered which test you use: Stanford Binet, Raven's Progressive Matrices, the SAT, the Stanford 9TA, the ACT, the CRCT, etc. It doesn't matter which part of the world you pick to do the testing: Atlanta, Detroit, Paris FR, Johannesburg SA, etc. Blacks have always trailed whites in tests of intelligence. Over the years, it has become well-documented that each race has a distribution for intelligence that is Gaussian (or normal, or bell-curved) to a very good approximation.

In the United States, black residents have a distribution for IQ having an average of 85 and a standard deviation of 12.4 points, whereas white residents have a distribution for IQ having an average of 103 and a standard deviation of 16.4 points. And the differences in those distributions explain a lot of what you blacks blame racism for.

I'm going to assume that most of you don't know calculus, so that if I were to write something like:

f(μ) = [σ√(2π)]⁻ ∫(μ,∞) exp{ −[(x−x̄)/σ] } dx

you wouldn't know what it means. What that equation does is find the fraction of the population of a racial group whose average IQ is above whatever minimum value is assigned to μ, given that the average IQ for that race is x̄ and that the race's standard deviation in IQ is σ. For US-resident whites, x̄=103 and σ=16.4. For US-resident blacks, x̄=85 and σ=12.4.

Now, suppose that a certain kind of work requires that the person doing it have an IQ of 130 or more. There are jobs of this kind, which require more brains than muscle. Job applicants of every race approach the employer seeking jobs of that kind, and the employer, to stay competitive in his industry, must select only those applicants who meet the minimum IQ qualification. The question is what fraction of whites and what fraction of blacks will qualify for the job? To find the answer, carry out the integration, once for whites and again for blacks.

For whites,
W(130) = [16.4√(2π)]⁻ ∫(130,∞) exp{ −[(x−103)/16.4] } dx = 0.0498467387

For blacks,
B(130) = [12.4√(2π)]⁻ ∫(130,∞) exp{ −[(x−85)/12.4] } dx = 0.00014224284

You can see that whereas about 1 out of every 20 whites qualify, only 1 out of every 7030 blacks do. The fraction of all whites who qualify is about 350 times greater than the fraction of all blacks who qualify. Now, the ratio of whites to blacks in the United States is presently about five-and-a-half. If the employer isn't a racist at all, if he is completely fair about whom he hires, and if he is in a demographically "average" part of the United States, then he will hire about 1900 whites for each black he hires.

If among his hirelings there is a lower ratio of whites to blacks than 1900, then the employer is being racist in favor of blacks, though perhaps he is being forced into it because of Affirmative Action laws.


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